Can someone with a legal background please explain how equal rights law works in this country? I just don’t get it.
In the news this week, a Christian couple have been taken to court by a gay couple for having a married couples only policy in their B&B for double rooms.
At the same time, hotels advertise that they are “gay only.” Guyz Hotel in Blackpool states on its website:
You may bring a guest back to the Hotel but YOU will be responsible for their conduct and behaviour.
Guyz is a GENUINE Gay Hotel.
That means it is a hotel owned and run BY gay people FOR gay people,
but beware there are some straight owned ‘Pink Pound’ friendly Hotels
locally that display the pride flag trying to cash in on gay money,
and it isn’t until you check in that you discover they may be mixed, or even have STAG & HEN parties staying.!!!
If you are specifically looking for a Gay Hotel be sure to ask if it is exclusively gay when booking to avoid possible disappointment
So it’s okay to exclude straight people but its wrong to exclude gay people. Is that right? Is this a case double standards or am I missing something? Can hotels legally cater to the gay only market? If so, why can’t Christians cater to the married only market? Is this another case of legal inconsistency caused by rights based law? He who shouts “injustice” loudest wins. By what standard is injustice judged? Is it really by determining whose feelings are hurt most? Can someone please clarify?
For more on gay/straight issues see When being gay is no choice